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Yitong Li edited untitled.tex
almost 8 years ago
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If f is continuous on $R_2$ and $\int_{R}f dA = 0$ for all smoothly bounded sets $R$, then $$ is identically zero.
(a)If (a) If $f(a,b)=p>0$ then there is a disc $D$ of radius $r>0$ centered at $(a,b) $in which $f(x,y)> \frac {1}{2}p$
(b) If f is continuous and
f(x,y) $f(x,y) ≥
p1 p_1 >
0 0$ on a disk
R $R$ then $\int_{R}f dA \geq
p1(Area(R))$. p_1(Area(R))$.
$\int_{R}f dA = 0$for all smoothly bounded regions $R$, then $f$ cannot be positive at any point.
(d) $f$ is not negative at any point either.
(e) $f = 0$ at all points.
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(a) Because f is continuous at $(a, b)$, by the definition of continuity, there is $r > 0$ such that for all $(x, y)$ such that$ ||(x, y) − (a, b)|| < r$, we have $|f(x, y) − f(a, b)| < p/2$.Then we assume p > 0, so $p − p/2 < f(x,y) < p + p/2$ In particular, $f (x, y) > p/2$
(b) As $R$ is bounded, the closure of $R$ is closed and bounded. So we can apply the extreme value theorem which means $f$ is bounded on the closure of $R$. In particular, $f$ is bounded on $R$. $f$ is also integrable on $R$; in fact $\int_{R}f dA = 0$.
Apply the lower bound property, $\int_{R}f dA \geq
p1(Area(R))$ p_1(Area(R))$ holds.
(c) Suppose $f$ is positive at $(a, b)$.