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Nathanael A. Fortune added textbf_EDITOR_s_NOTE_textbf__.tex
over 8 years ago
Commit id: 0334790d842c28753962bd04ea5d5e5d644841d1
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\textbf{EDITOR's NOTE: }
\textbf{a key point missing here} is WHY you would subtract off the 1 ohm values from the 1 k$\Omega$ values (and from the 10 k$\Omega$).
Here's why:
First,because mean squared Johnson noise $<(V_J)^2>$ is proportional to the resistance $R_{in}$, we expect that $<(V_J)^2> << <(V_{instrument})^2>$ for $R_{in} = 1 \Omega$, so we can assume that all the noise measured for the 1 ohm resistor is due to instrumentation noise.
Second, unlike Johnson noise, the noise from the instrumentation (the amplifier circuits, etc) WON'T vary when you vary $R_{in}$, so by measuring it for $R_{in} = 1 \Omega$, you've also determined what it would be for $R_{in} = 1000 \Omega$ and for $R_{in} = 10000 \Omega$.
